CITB Managers and Professionals Practice Test 2026: Practice test 3

1. Question 1 of 25

   What does the hand-arm vibration exposure limit value of 5.0 m/s² A(8) mean?

   • AIt is the level where planning starts
   • BIt applies only to office work
   • CDaily exposure must not go above it
   • DIt may be exceeded if gloves are worn
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Daily exposure must not go above it

   HSE says the exposure limit value of 5.0 m/s² A(8) should not be exceeded.

2. Question 2 of 25

   Your site has no option but portable chemical toilets. How many does HSE say you need?

   • AOne for every 25 people working a 40-hour week
   • BOne for every 50 people
   • COne for the whole site
   • DOne for every 7 people working a 40-hour week
   Show answer

   Answer: D. One for every 7 people working a 40-hour week

   HSE treats portable chemical toilets as a last resort and says to provide one for every 7 people working a 40-hour week.

3. Question 3 of 25

   Demolition work is dirty. Which extra welfare facility does HSE say must be provided?

   • AA car wash
   • BA gym
   • CA shop
   • DShowers
   Show answer

   Answer: D. Showers

   HSE says demolition workers need at least normal facilities, and showers must be provided where the work is dirty.

4. Question 4 of 25

   What should a manager do first when a task involves a confined space?

   • AAvoid entry if the work can be done another way
   • BRely on the local fire service to carry out any rescue
   • CAllow entry without any plan
   • DSend in the newest worker
   Show answer

   Answer: A. Avoid entry if the work can be done another way

   HSE says that wherever possible you should avoid carrying out tasks in confined spaces.

5. Question 5 of 25

   What must be planned before anyone enters a confined space?

   • AA press release in case something goes wrong
   • BA visit from the client or designer to approve the work inside
   • CRescue plans that do not rely only on the emergency services
   • DA tea break inside the space so workers get used to it
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Rescue plans that do not rely only on the emergency services

   HSE says you must plan how to check on workers and get them out if they are overcome, without relying only on the emergency services.

6. Question 6 of 25

   What does regulation 22 of CDM 2015 require to stop an excavation collapsing?

   • AAll practicable steps, such as supports or battering
   • BDigging faster so the trench stays open for less time
   • CA daily photograph of the trench
   • DWarning signs only
   Show answer

   Answer: A. All practicable steps, such as supports or battering

   Regulation 22 requires all practicable steps, including supports or battering where necessary, so that nobody is buried or trapped.

7. Question 7 of 25

   An excavation inspector reports a safety concern. What must happen?

   • AThe report is filed and the shift continues
   • BWork carries on while it is noted
   • CWork in it stops until the problem is fixed
   • DOnly visitors are kept out
   Show answer

   Answer: C. Work in it stops until the problem is fixed

   Regulation 22(5) says work must not continue in the excavation until the matters reported have been remedied.

8. Question 8 of 25

   An inspector is not satisfied an excavation is safe. By when must the written report reach the person it was done for?

   • AWithin one week
   • BWithin 24 hours of finishing the inspection
   • CAt the end of the project
   • DWithin 30 days
   Show answer

   Answer: B. Within 24 hours of finishing the inspection

   Regulation 24 requires notice before the end of the shift and the written report within 24 hours of completing the inspection.

9. Question 9 of 25

   How long must inspection reports under regulation 24 be kept available on site?

   • AThey do not need to be kept
   • BFor one week only
   • CFor 10 years
   • DUntil the construction work is complete, and then for 3 months
   Show answer

   Answer: D. Until the construction work is complete, and then for 3 months

   Regulation 24 requires reports to be kept on site until the work is finished and for 3 months after that.

10. Question 10 of 25

    When planning work at height, which order of measures does HSE describe?

    • AReduce the fall distance, then avoid the work, then prevent falls
    • BAvoid it, prevent falls, then limit the distance and effects of a fall
    • CProvide nets, then train workers, then avoid the work if it is possible
    • DIssue harnesses, then plan the job, then inspect the equipment
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Avoid it, prevent falls, then limit the distance and effects of a fall

    HSE says to avoid work at height where possible, then prevent falls, then reduce the distance and consequences of any fall.

11. Question 11 of 25

    Who may inspect a basic scaffold, according to HSE?

    • AA competent person, possibly a trained non-scaffolder
    • BOnly an HSE inspector during a site visit
    • COnly the client or the client's appointed agent
    • DAnyone on site who walks past it and sees no obvious damage
    Show answer

    Answer: A. A competent person, possibly a trained non-scaffolder

    HSE says inspections need a competent person, and a non-scaffolder can inspect a basic scaffold after suitable training.

12. Question 12 of 25

    Workers need to cross a fragile roof and access cannot be avoided. What controls does HSE expect?

    • AWalking only on the roof sheets, not the joints
    • BWorking only on dry days, with no other controls
    • CA warning sign at the access point and a spotter
    • DEdge protection, staging, and nets or harnesses
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Edge protection, staging, and nets or harnesses

    HSE says to avoid fragile roofs where possible and otherwise use edge protection, staging and nets or harnesses.

13. Question 13 of 25

    Who does the waste duty of care in section 34 of the Environmental Protection Act 1990 apply to?

    • AOnly households and small shops
    • BOnly the local council's waste department
    • COnly licensed waste collection firms and the drivers of their lorries
    • DAnyone who produces, keeps, carries, treats or disposes of it
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Anyone who produces, keeps, carries, treats or disposes of it

    Section 34 places the duty on anyone who imports, produces, carries, keeps, treats or disposes of controlled waste, or controls it as a broker.

14. Question 14 of 25

    Who may you transfer site waste to under the duty of care?

    • AOnly an authorised person, such as a registered carrier
    • BAnyone with a large enough van who agrees to take it to a tip
    • CAny worker who offers to take it home
    • DAny neighbour who asks for the materials
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Only an authorised person, such as a registered carrier

    Section 34 says waste may only be transferred to an authorised person, such as a registered carrier or permit holder.

15. Question 15 of 25

    What must go with each transfer of waste?

    • AA photograph of the site manager
    • BA copy of the construction phase plan
    • CA written description of the waste
    • DNothing, the carrier will guess
    Show answer

    Answer: C. A written description of the waste

    Section 34 requires a written description detailed enough for the receiver to handle the waste lawfully.

16. Question 16 of 25

    Which is part of the waste duty of care while waste is still on your site?

    • ALeave skips uncovered on windy days
    • BPrevent it escaping from your control
    • CBury it on the site
    • DBurn it to save space
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Prevent it escaping from your control

    Section 34 requires anyone with the duty of care to prevent waste escaping from their control or anyone else's.

17. Question 17 of 25

    Diesel from your site is getting into a stream in England. Who should you report it to?

    • ANobody, if it stops soon
    • BThe site's insurer only, within 28 days of the spill
    • CThe local newspaper
    • DThe Environment Agency incident hotline
    Show answer

    Answer: D. The Environment Agency incident hotline

    GOV.UK says pollution of rivers, streams or canals in England should be reported to the Environment Agency's 24-hour incident hotline.

18. Question 18 of 25

    You want advance agreement on noise controls for a construction job. What can you apply for under section 61 of the Control of Pollution Act 1974?

    • AA building warrant from HSE
    • BA permit from the Highways Agency
    • CA licence from CITB
    • DPrior consent from the local authority
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Prior consent from the local authority

    Section 61 lets a person planning construction works apply to the local authority for prior consent, setting out methods and noise controls.

19. Question 19 of 25

    According to HSE, what causes most construction transport accidents?

    • APoor separation of pedestrians and vehicles
    • BDrivers taking breaks
    • CToo many warning signs
    • DVehicles driving too slowly
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Poor separation of pedestrians and vehicles

    HSE says most construction transport accidents result from inadequate separation of pedestrians and vehicles, so plan separate routes.

20. Question 20 of 25

    How can a site layout reduce the need for vehicles to reverse?

    • AUse a one-way system or a turning circle
    • BMake every route a dead end
    • CAsk drivers to reverse faster
    • DRemove all mirrors from vehicles
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Use a one-way system or a turning circle

    HSE calls reversing a major cause of fatal accidents and suggests one-way systems or turning circles to avoid it.

21. Question 21 of 25

    Who may direct vehicle movements on your site?

    • AMembers of the public
    • BDelivery drivers directing each other
    • CAny worker who is nearby
    • DSignallers who are trained and authorised to do it
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Signallers who are trained and authorised to do it

    HSE says people who direct vehicle movements must be trained and authorised, and marshallers should be trained for the task.

22. Question 22 of 25

    Under PUWER, who may use a piece of work equipment?

    • AAny visitor who wants to try
    • BOnly the person who bought it
    • CAnyone who says they have used one before
    • DOnly people who have had adequate information, instruction and training
    Show answer

    Answer: D. Only people who have had adequate information, instruction and training

    PUWER requires work equipment to be used only by people who have received adequate information, instruction and training.

23. Question 23 of 25

    Equipment on your site could deteriorate in a way that becomes dangerous. What does PUWER require?

    • AInspections so that faults are found in good time
    • BA sign saying use at your own risk
    • CReplacement every week
    • DNothing until it breaks
    Show answer

    Answer: A. Inspections so that faults are found in good time

    PUWER says equipment exposed to dangerous deterioration must be inspected so faults are detected in good time, and kept maintained.

24. Question 24 of 25

    What does regulation 32 of CDM 2015 require for fire-fighting equipment on site?

    • AIt is only needed in the site office
    • BIt must be locked away from workers
    • CIt is only needed after a fire
    • DIt must be suitable, checked and tested at intervals, easy to reach and marked with signs
    Show answer

    Answer: D. It must be suitable, checked and tested at intervals, easy to reach and marked with signs

    Regulation 32 requires suitable fire-fighting and detection equipment, regular checks and tests, easy access and suitable signs.

25. Question 25 of 25

    A task on site has a particular fire risk, such as hot work. Who may carry it out?

    • AAnyone with a fire extinguisher nearby
    • BOnly people who have had suitable instruction
    • CAnyone, if it is done quickly
    • DOnly the newest worker
    Show answer

    Answer: B. Only people who have had suitable instruction

    Regulation 32 says a person must not carry out an activity with a particular fire risk unless suitably instructed.

Keyboard: 1–4 to answer, Enter for the next question.

The real test: 45 of 50 (90%)