Level 2 Food Hygiene Practice Test 2026: Practice test 3

Practice test 3 of 4 for the Level 2 Food Hygiene Practice Test: 25 more questions with answers and explanations.

Food safety
United Kingdom
100 questions
Checked October 10, 2026

Question 1 of 25
What temperature should a freezer be kept at?
- −5°C
- −18°C or colder
- 5°C
- 0°C
Show answer
Answer: B. −18°C or colder
Freezers should keep food at −18°C or colder. Freezing stops bacteria multiplying but does not kill them all.
Question 2 of 25
How should cooked food be cooled before it goes into the fridge?
- In the same deep pot, covered
- In the oven with the door open
- Slowly, overnight on the counter
- As quickly as possible, for example in small portions or shallow trays
Show answer
Answer: D. As quickly as possible, for example in small portions or shallow trays
Food should be cooled under hygienic conditions as quickly as possible to stop bacteria and spores multiplying.
Question 3 of 25
What is the safest way to defrost frozen raw chicken?
- Next to the oven
- In a sink of hot water
- On the kitchen counter
- In a fridge, on a tray at the bottom
Show answer
Answer: D. In a fridge, on a tray at the bottom
Defrost in the fridge on the bottom shelf so juices cannot drip onto other food. Make sure it is fully defrosted before cooking.
Question 4 of 25
Why must frozen poultry be fully defrosted before cooking?
- Frozen centres may not reach a safe temperature during cooking
- It makes it heavier
- It is only about taste
- It changes the colour
Show answer
Answer: A. Frozen centres may not reach a safe temperature during cooking
If ice remains in the centre, the cooking time may not be enough for the core to get hot enough.
Question 5 of 25
How should a probe thermometer be used to check cooked food?
- Lay it on top of the food
- Insert the clean, disinfected probe into the centre or thickest part
- Check only the outside edge
- Touch the side of the pan
Show answer
Answer: B. Insert the clean, disinfected probe into the centre or thickest part
Probe the centre or thickest part, away from bones and the container, and clean the probe between foods.
Question 6 of 25
In this diagram, which marker shows the correct position for the probe tip?
- Marker 2
- Marker 3
- Marker 1
- Marker 4
Show answer
Answer: C. Marker 1
Marker 1 is the centre of the thickest part. Markers 2 and 3 are the bone and the tray, which the probe must not touch.
Question 7 of 25
Why should a probe thermometer be cleaned and disinfected between uses?
- To stop it spreading bacteria from one food to another
- To change the reading
- To keep it shiny
- To make the battery last longer
Show answer
Answer: A. To stop it spreading bacteria from one food to another
A dirty probe can carry bacteria from raw food into cooked or ready-to-eat food.
Question 8 of 25
How many allergens must UK food businesses give information about?
- 5
- 9
- 14
- 20
Show answer
Answer: C. 14
UK food law lists 14 allergens that businesses must tell customers about when they are in food.
Question 9 of 25
Which of these is one of the 14 allergens in UK food law?
- Chicken
- Celery
- Carrots
- Rice
Show answer
Answer: B. Celery
Celery is one of the 14. Others include cereals containing gluten, crustaceans, eggs, fish, lupin, milk, molluscs, mustard, peanuts, sesame, soybeans, sulphites and tree nuts.
Question 10 of 25
Which of these is one of the 14 allergens?
- Tomato
- Lupin
- Apple
- Potato
Show answer
Answer: B. Lupin
Lupin, a legume sometimes used in flour, is one of the 14 allergens.
Question 11 of 25
Which group of allergens includes mussels and oysters?
- Molluscs
- Fish
- Crustaceans
- Tree nuts
Show answer
Answer: A. Molluscs
Molluscs include mussels and oysters. Crustaceans include prawns, crabs and lobsters.
Question 12 of 25
Sulphur dioxide and sulphites must be declared as an allergen when present above what level?
- 10 parts per million
- Any level at all
- 500 parts per million
- 1 part per billion
Show answer
Answer: A. 10 parts per million
Sulphur dioxide and sulphites must be declared at concentrations of more than 10 mg/kg or 10 mg/litre (10 parts per million).
Question 13 of 25
What is prepacked for direct sale (PPDS) food?
- Food made to order in front of the customer
- Food sold loose from a counter
- Food packed on the same premises where it is sold, before the customer orders it
- Food imported from abroad
Show answer
Answer: C. Food packed on the same premises where it is sold, before the customer orders it
Examples include sandwiches, salads and pies packed on site and placed on display.
Question 14 of 25
What must a PPDS label show?
- Only the word "allergens"
- Only the chef's name
- Only the price
- The name of the food and a full ingredients list with allergens emphasised
Show answer
Answer: D. The name of the food and a full ingredients list with allergens emphasised
Since Natasha's Law came into force on 1 October 2021, PPDS food must show the name of the food and a full ingredients list with the 14 allergens emphasised, for example in bold.
Question 15 of 25
For food sold loose (non-prepacked), how can allergen information be given?
- In writing, or verbally with a written notice telling customers how to get it
- Only on request by email a week later
- It does not need to be given
- Only on the business's website
Show answer
Answer: A. In writing, or verbally with a written notice telling customers how to get it
Allergen information must be available for every item. If it is given verbally, a clear written notice must say how to ask for it.
Question 16 of 25
When food is sold online or by phone for delivery, when must allergen information be given?
- Only after the customer complains
- Only if the customer asks twice
- Before the purchase is completed and again when the food is delivered
- Never for delivery food
Show answer
Answer: C. Before the purchase is completed and again when the food is delivered
For distance selling, allergen information must be available before purchase and at the moment of delivery.
Question 17 of 25
Why should gluten-free chips not be cooked in the same oil as battered fish?
- It is only about taste
- It uses too much oil
- The oil can carry gluten from the batter onto the chips
- It makes the chips soggy
Show answer
Answer: C. The oil can carry gluten from the batter onto the chips
Shared fryer oil is a common source of allergen cross-contamination.
Question 18 of 25
A customer asks for a dish without nuts, but the kitchen cannot avoid cross-contamination. What should staff do?
- Tell them nuts are not dangerous
- Serve it and say nothing
- Pick the nuts off and serve it
- Tell the customer that a nut-free dish cannot be guaranteed
Show answer
Answer: D. Tell the customer that a nut-free dish cannot be guaranteed
If cross-contamination cannot be avoided, the customer must be told so they can make a safe choice.
Question 19 of 25
Which practice helps prevent allergen cross-contamination?
- Wipe knives on an apron
- Store open allergen ingredients above other food
- Store ingredients in closed, labelled containers and wash hands between dishes
- Use the same utensils for all dishes
Show answer
Answer: C. Store ingredients in closed, labelled containers and wash hands between dishes
Clean utensils, washed hands and separate, labelled storage reduce the risk of allergens getting into other food.
Question 20 of 25
Who must food businesses make sure receive allergen training?
- Their customers
- Their staff
- Their suppliers only
- No one
Show answer
Answer: B. Their staff
Businesses must make sure staff are trained in handling allergens. The FSA offers free online allergy training.
Question 21 of 25
How long should food handlers usually stay off work after diarrhoea or vomiting stops?
- 2 hours
- 12 hours
- 48 hours
- They can return straight away
Show answer
Answer: C. 48 hours
Food Standards Agency guidance says food handlers should not return until 48 hours after symptoms have stopped.
Question 22 of 25
A chef has diarrhoea. What must they do?
- Report it to their manager and stay away from food handling
- Take medicine and carry on
- Work but wear gloves
- Work but wash their hands more often
Show answer
Answer: A. Report it to their manager and stay away from food handling
Food handlers with diarrhoea or vomiting must report it immediately and must not handle food.
Question 23 of 25
When must a food handler wash their hands?
- Only at the start of the shift
- Only after the shift ends
- Only when they look dirty
- After handling raw meat and before handling ready-to-eat food
Show answer
Answer: D. After handling raw meat and before handling ready-to-eat food
Also wash after using the toilet, breaks, touching your face or hair, handling waste and cleaning.
Question 24 of 25
How long should you rub your hands with soap when washing them?
- Two full minutes every time
- At least 20 seconds
- About 5 seconds
- About 2 seconds
Show answer
Answer: B. At least 20 seconds
Rub all parts of the hands, including between the fingers, thumbs and fingertips, for at least 20 seconds.
Question 25 of 25
In this handwashing diagram, what happens at step 5?
- Hands are wet
- Soap is added
- Hands are rinsed
- Hands are dried with a paper towel
Show answer
Answer: D. Hands are dried with a paper towel
Drying hands well with a disposable towel removes more bacteria. Step 6 uses the towel to turn off the tap.

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