Level 2 Food Hygiene Practice Test 2026: Test próbny 3

1. Pytanie 1 z 25

   What temperature should a freezer be kept at?

   • A−5°C
   • B−18°C or colder
   • C5°C
   • D0°C
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   Odpowiedź: B. −18°C or colder

   Freezers should keep food at −18°C or colder. Freezing stops bacteria multiplying but does not kill them all.

2. Pytanie 2 z 25

   How should cooked food be cooled before it goes into the fridge?

   • AIn the same deep pot, covered
   • BIn the oven with the door open
   • CSlowly, overnight on the counter
   • DAs quickly as possible, for example in small portions or shallow trays
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   Odpowiedź: D. As quickly as possible, for example in small portions or shallow trays

   Food should be cooled under hygienic conditions as quickly as possible to stop bacteria and spores multiplying.

3. Pytanie 3 z 25

   What is the safest way to defrost frozen raw chicken?

   • ANext to the oven
   • BIn a sink of hot water
   • COn the kitchen counter
   • DIn a fridge, on a tray at the bottom
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   Odpowiedź: D. In a fridge, on a tray at the bottom

   Defrost in the fridge on the bottom shelf so juices cannot drip onto other food. Make sure it is fully defrosted before cooking.

4. Pytanie 4 z 25

   Why must frozen poultry be fully defrosted before cooking?

   • AFrozen centres may not reach a safe temperature during cooking
   • BIt makes it heavier
   • CIt is only about taste
   • DIt changes the colour
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   Odpowiedź: A. Frozen centres may not reach a safe temperature during cooking

   If ice remains in the centre, the cooking time may not be enough for the core to get hot enough.

5. Pytanie 5 z 25

   How should a probe thermometer be used to check cooked food?

   • ALay it on top of the food
   • BInsert the clean, disinfected probe into the centre or thickest part
   • CCheck only the outside edge
   • DTouch the side of the pan
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   Odpowiedź: B. Insert the clean, disinfected probe into the centre or thickest part

   Probe the centre or thickest part, away from bones and the container, and clean the probe between foods.

6. Pytanie 6 z 25

   In this diagram, which marker shows the correct position for the probe tip?

   • AMarker 2
   • BMarker 3
   • CMarker 1
   • DMarker 4
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   Odpowiedź: C. Marker 1

   Marker 1 is the centre of the thickest part. Markers 2 and 3 are the bone and the tray, which the probe must not touch.

7. Pytanie 7 z 25

   Why should a probe thermometer be cleaned and disinfected between uses?

   • ATo stop it spreading bacteria from one food to another
   • BTo change the reading
   • CTo keep it shiny
   • DTo make the battery last longer
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   Odpowiedź: A. To stop it spreading bacteria from one food to another

   A dirty probe can carry bacteria from raw food into cooked or ready-to-eat food.

8. Pytanie 8 z 25

   How many allergens must UK food businesses give information about?

   • A5
   • B9
   • C14
   • D20
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   Odpowiedź: C. 14

   UK food law lists 14 allergens that businesses must tell customers about when they are in food.

9. Pytanie 9 z 25

   Which of these is one of the 14 allergens in UK food law?

   • AChicken
   • BCelery
   • CCarrots
   • DRice
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   Odpowiedź: B. Celery

   Celery is one of the 14. Others include cereals containing gluten, crustaceans, eggs, fish, lupin, milk, molluscs, mustard, peanuts, sesame, soybeans, sulphites and tree nuts.

10. Pytanie 10 z 25

    Which of these is one of the 14 allergens?

    • ATomato
    • BLupin
    • CApple
    • DPotato
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    Odpowiedź: B. Lupin

    Lupin, a legume sometimes used in flour, is one of the 14 allergens.

11. Pytanie 11 z 25

    Which group of allergens includes mussels and oysters?

    • AMolluscs
    • BFish
    • CCrustaceans
    • DTree nuts
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    Odpowiedź: A. Molluscs

    Molluscs include mussels and oysters. Crustaceans include prawns, crabs and lobsters.

12. Pytanie 12 z 25

    Sulphur dioxide and sulphites must be declared as an allergen when present above what level?

    • A10 parts per million
    • BAny level at all
    • C500 parts per million
    • D1 part per billion
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    Odpowiedź: A. 10 parts per million

    Sulphur dioxide and sulphites must be declared at concentrations of more than 10 mg/kg or 10 mg/litre (10 parts per million).

13. Pytanie 13 z 25

    What is prepacked for direct sale (PPDS) food?

    • AFood made to order in front of the customer
    • BFood sold loose from a counter
    • CFood packed on the same premises where it is sold, before the customer orders it
    • DFood imported from abroad
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    Odpowiedź: C. Food packed on the same premises where it is sold, before the customer orders it

    Examples include sandwiches, salads and pies packed on site and placed on display.

14. Pytanie 14 z 25

    What must a PPDS label show?

    • AOnly the word "allergens"
    • BOnly the chef's name
    • COnly the price
    • DThe name of the food and a full ingredients list with allergens emphasised
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    Odpowiedź: D. The name of the food and a full ingredients list with allergens emphasised

    Since Natasha's Law came into force on 1 October 2021, PPDS food must show the name of the food and a full ingredients list with the 14 allergens emphasised, for example in bold.

15. Pytanie 15 z 25

    For food sold loose (non-prepacked), how can allergen information be given?

    • AIn writing, or verbally with a written notice telling customers how to get it
    • BOnly on request by email a week later
    • CIt does not need to be given
    • DOnly on the business's website
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    Odpowiedź: A. In writing, or verbally with a written notice telling customers how to get it

    Allergen information must be available for every item. If it is given verbally, a clear written notice must say how to ask for it.

16. Pytanie 16 z 25

    When food is sold online or by phone for delivery, when must allergen information be given?

    • AOnly after the customer complains
    • BOnly if the customer asks twice
    • CBefore the purchase is completed and again when the food is delivered
    • DNever for delivery food
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    Odpowiedź: C. Before the purchase is completed and again when the food is delivered

    For distance selling, allergen information must be available before purchase and at the moment of delivery.

17. Pytanie 17 z 25

    Why should gluten-free chips not be cooked in the same oil as battered fish?

    • AIt is only about taste
    • BIt uses too much oil
    • CThe oil can carry gluten from the batter onto the chips
    • DIt makes the chips soggy
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    Odpowiedź: C. The oil can carry gluten from the batter onto the chips

    Shared fryer oil is a common source of allergen cross-contamination.

18. Pytanie 18 z 25

    A customer asks for a dish without nuts, but the kitchen cannot avoid cross-contamination. What should staff do?

    • ATell them nuts are not dangerous
    • BServe it and say nothing
    • CPick the nuts off and serve it
    • DTell the customer that a nut-free dish cannot be guaranteed
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    Odpowiedź: D. Tell the customer that a nut-free dish cannot be guaranteed

    If cross-contamination cannot be avoided, the customer must be told so they can make a safe choice.

19. Pytanie 19 z 25

    Which practice helps prevent allergen cross-contamination?

    • AWipe knives on an apron
    • BStore open allergen ingredients above other food
    • CStore ingredients in closed, labelled containers and wash hands between dishes
    • DUse the same utensils for all dishes
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    Odpowiedź: C. Store ingredients in closed, labelled containers and wash hands between dishes

    Clean utensils, washed hands and separate, labelled storage reduce the risk of allergens getting into other food.

20. Pytanie 20 z 25

    Who must food businesses make sure receive allergen training?

    • ATheir customers
    • BTheir staff
    • CTheir suppliers only
    • DNo one
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    Odpowiedź: B. Their staff

    Businesses must make sure staff are trained in handling allergens. The FSA offers free online allergy training.

21. Pytanie 21 z 25

    How long should food handlers usually stay off work after diarrhoea or vomiting stops?

    • A2 hours
    • B12 hours
    • C48 hours
    • DThey can return straight away
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    Odpowiedź: C. 48 hours

    Food Standards Agency guidance says food handlers should not return until 48 hours after symptoms have stopped.

22. Pytanie 22 z 25

    A chef has diarrhoea. What must they do?

    • AReport it to their manager and stay away from food handling
    • BTake medicine and carry on
    • CWork but wear gloves
    • DWork but wash their hands more often
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    Odpowiedź: A. Report it to their manager and stay away from food handling

    Food handlers with diarrhoea or vomiting must report it immediately and must not handle food.

23. Pytanie 23 z 25

    When must a food handler wash their hands?

    • AOnly at the start of the shift
    • BOnly after the shift ends
    • COnly when they look dirty
    • DAfter handling raw meat and before handling ready-to-eat food
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    Odpowiedź: D. After handling raw meat and before handling ready-to-eat food

    Also wash after using the toilet, breaks, touching your face or hair, handling waste and cleaning.

24. Pytanie 24 z 25

    How long should you rub your hands with soap when washing them?

    • ATwo full minutes every time
    • BAt least 20 seconds
    • CAbout 5 seconds
    • DAbout 2 seconds
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    Odpowiedź: B. At least 20 seconds

    Rub all parts of the hands, including between the fingers, thumbs and fingertips, for at least 20 seconds.

25. Pytanie 25 z 25

    In this handwashing diagram, what happens at step 5?

    • AHands are wet
    • BSoap is added
    • CHands are rinsed
    • DHands are dried with a paper towel
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    Odpowiedź: D. Hands are dried with a paper towel

    Drying hands well with a disposable towel removes more bacteria. Step 6 uses the towel to turn off the tap.

Klawiatura: 1–4, aby odpowiedzieć, Enter – następne pytanie.

Prawdziwy egzamin: Set by your training provider. The law requires food handlers to be supervised and trained, not to hold a certificate.